ON BEING A WOMAN
Judy Wubnig
1. Introduction
Since
the 1970s there have been attacks on the English language for having
views about subjects, including men and women, which are wrong or
immoral. The English language is said to
denigrate women and cause their oppression.
This
view is false since no natural language has any theory and the position
of women in English-speaking countries is not worse than the position
of women in places where non-English languages are spoken; in fact,
women are not oppressed in English-speaking countries.
2. Natural
languages and theories
Edward
Sapir (1884-1939) and Benjamin Lee Whorf (1897-1941) argued that
different languages have different theories about the world. Whorf, for
example, argued that Hopi Indians do not think about time as English
speakers do because the Hopi language does not have tenses.
This
view underlies the theory that English has a theory about the sexes
because it has gender, because some words include the word 'man,' and
because some words distinguish between men and women.
A. The Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis
I will
not deal with the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis in detail here except to note
faults with it. (Sapir and Whorf were,
incidentally, fine linguists.) Many people
speak several languages without changing their views of the world. Isaac Newton wrote in both English and Latin
but had the same views. Although many
languages, like Hopi and Chinese, do not have verb tenses, people who
speak these languages do have concepts of time, of the past, present,
and future. In English we say that
the sun rises and sets, but most current speakers of English do not
believe that the sun revolves around the earth, but attribute sunrise
and sunset to the rotation of the earth.
B. The Sexes and the English language
1. Gender:
Gender
is a grammatical category. Some in the
recent past have proposed that the word be used to refer to
conventional differences between the sexes, while the word 'sex'
should be reserved to refer to the biological differences.
This
proposal has been a failure, since now the term 'gender' is beginning
to be used for the biological differences!
There is
very little gender left in English. Only
the third person singular pronouns, 'he,' 'she,' and 'it,' have the
genders respectively, masculine, feminine, and neuter.
Other languages have all nouns with gender, for example, French
has two (masculine and feminine) and German three (masculine, feminine,
and neuter), while other languages have none, for example, Chinese and
Turkish.
There is
little (but sometimes some) connection between gender and sex, and the
distinctions called 'masculine,' 'feminine,' and 'neuter,' could just
as well have been called 'red,' 'white,' and 'blue,' or 'one,' 'two,'
'three.' (Aristophanes has much fun with the distinction discovered by
the Greek grammarians in his comedy The Clouds. See the confusions of
Strepsiades when he discovers that nouns like 'pigeon' and 'trough'
have gender, ca. 654-700.)
In
German, two words for 'girl' are neuter (das Fraulein. Das Madchen) -
the word for 'cat' is feminine (die Katze) and for 'dog' is masculine
(der Hund), and Germans know perfectly well that the sex of girls is
female and that cats and dogs come in two sexes. In
French, the word for 'person' is feminine (la Personne), though every
Frenchmen knows that persons come in two sexes. Germans
do not think that the sun (die Sonne - feminine) is a female nor do the
French think that it is a male (le soleil - masculine).
The
confusion about gender and sex perhaps arises more easily among those
who only speak English because there is so little gender in the English
language. Remnants like referring to a dog
as 'he' and a cat as 'she,' or a baby as 'he' or 'it' when the sex is
not known do not show that the speaker does not know that dogs, cats,
and babies come in two sexes. The character Alfie in the movie Alfie
refers to women as 'birds,' and when he is
talking about
a 'bird,' he refers to 'it' - Alfie the womanizer knows quite well that
a 'bird' is of the female sex! When a Scot refers to a young man as
'she,' he does not think that the young man is a woman!
2.
The word 'man:'
Some
argue that the word 'man,' either by itself or as part of a word, means
an adult member of homo sapiens of the male sex, so that words like
'chairman' and 'layman' have been changed to 'chair' and 'laypersons.'
A program at the University of Waterloo instituted in 1969 called 'Man
and His Environment,' eventually had its title changed, and a course I
taught 'Mankind and Nature' was changed in the University of Waterloo
Calendar to 'Humankind and Nature' (without my knowledge or permission). So until very recently, English speakers knew
that the word 'man' is the name of the species as well as sometimes a
male of that species. Unless censors
bowdlerize English writings, drama, film, and television from before
1980 or so, any English speaker will have to know this.
The one
word refutation of this mistake is in the word 'WOMAN' itself, which
does not mean someone of the male sex! (Some
women have tried to hide this by rewriting the plural as 'wymmyn,' -
some comic strip writers used 'wimmin' - but this changes the facts
about the word 'man' not one bit.)
In fact,
the original meaning of 'man' was for the species.
I include material below from The Oxford English Dictionary and
Dr. Ernest Klein, A Comprehensive Etymological Dictionary of the
English Language, on the words 'man' and 'human'. The
OED is more cautious about the IndoEuropean root.
a) Man: Man
(Old English) - generic term for homo sapiens,
probably originally meant 'one who thinks' from the
Indo-European base *men "to think', whence also OI 'matih', 'm=E1tih’ - 'thought', Latin 'mens, mentis' -
'mind', Gothic “muns’ - 'thought', 'munan'
- 'to think'. 'Mathematics' from the Greek 'mathematikos', from
'mathema' - 'to learn', ultimately from
the same Indo-European root *men-dh 'to have one's mind aroused, apply
oneself to'. 'Mind' - from same
Indo-European base *men 'to think, remember, have one's mind aroused, apply oneself to'.
b) Human: 'humanus'
(Latin), from 'homo' (Latin) - 'man'. Related to 'humus' - 'earth'. (Like Hebrew "Adam' - 'man',
'the one formed from earth'.)
Those
familiar with Sanskrit or languages derived from it will recognize that
'man' means 'thinking being.'
In
English, the word 'man' appeared
as parts of two
words in
about the eighth century: 'wereman' meant
the male of the species and 'wifman' meant the female.
By the twelfth century, 'wereman' had been contracted to 'man'
and meant both the species and the male of the species, to be
understood by context. (Again, see the
OED.) This is clear in the King
James translation of the Bible: "So God
created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male
and female created he them." (Genesis I, 27)
3. English-Speaking
Countries and the Status of Women.
Those
who have attacked the English-language as contributing to the
subjection of women claim that it has the theory that women are
inferior to men (in unnamed ways) and should be treated under the law
with lower status. But is this true? Is there any relation between any natural
language and the status of women?
A. Languages without gender
There
are languages without gender, like Chinese and Turkish, yet countries
where those are the main languages have not been countries where the
legal status of women was equal to that of men and superior to that in
English-speaking countries. What the
status of men and women is relative to
each other is not always easy to determine, so my comments are fairly
general. Changes in the status of women in
China and Turkey have
occurred because of political changes, changes in ideas about the
status of women, and not because of the languages.
The status of women in England has for many
centuries been superior to that in China and Turkey in the past.
B. The Legal Status of Women in
English-speaking political units.
The
legal status of women has been different in different political units
where English is the language. The laws of
England, for
example, were and are different from those in Canada, New Zealand, Australia, and the
different states of the United States. The states in the United States have
different laws. Wyoming gave the
women the vote in 1896, while other states did not.
Before the Women's Suffrage Amendment to the U.S. Constitution
in 1921, fifteen states had already granted women the vote.
C. Opportunities for Education
Even in
the colonial period of English North America, girls had elementary
education as well as boys.
(The Massachusetts Bay Colony required that all
children had to learn to read and write.)
Higher
education for women was made available in the United States before it
was available anywhere else in the world: Oberlin College, Mt. Holyoke, and others
from the 1830s on; my alma mater Swarthmore College in 1865;
graduate education at my graduate alma mater, Yale University, in 1891.
D. Disagreement about the status of women
There
has been much disagreement about what the status of women should be in
English, because, of course, the English language takes no position
whatsoever on the issue. Disagreement would be impossible if the
language required one to take a position. Even
those who attack the English language as pernicious show that their
view is false just because they attack it in English!
E. Conclusion
The
English language had and has no influence on the status of women in
English-speaking areas. Those who have
discussed in English what the status should be have had that influence,
but not the language itself.
(My
thanks to W. Keith Percival who has let me see his unpublished paper
"Sex and Gender in Natural Language.")
Published
in The Forum, Faculty Association of the University of Waterloo, April 8, 2004.
Judy
Wubnig is Professor of Philosophy at the University of Waterloo, and former
editor of the SAFS Newsletter.
Newsletter, September 2004-Text